ORGANIC EVOLUTION
1. Peripatus
is connecting link between
1) Annelida and Mollusca 2) Echinodermata
and Chordata
3) Reptiles and birds 4)
Annelida and Arthropoda
2. Which of
the following organs in man is not vestigial
1) Auricularis muscles 2) Plica semilunaris
3) Eustachian tube 4)
Mammary glands in males
3. In the
embryos of birds and mammals the heart is initially two chambered as in fish,
then three chambered as in amphibians and after that an incompletely divided
four chambered heart as in reptiles and finally four chambered this is an
example for
1) Germplasm theory 2)
Theory of Biogenesis 3) Biogenetic law 4) Homology
4. Homologous
organs have
1) Dissimilar origin and function
2) Similar structure and origin
but similar or dissimilar functions
3) Dissimilar origin and similar
function 4) Dissimilar structure and
similar function
5. shark
and whale have the same body form even though they are unrelated because of
1) Convergent evolution 2) Parallel
evolution
3) Divergent evolution 4) Macro
evolution
6. Wings of
a butterfly and wings of a bird are examples for
1) Vestigial organs 2) Atavistic organs 3) Homologous organs 4)
Analogous organs
7. The
development of the embryos of different organisms differ after the
1) Blastula stage 2) Gastrula stage 3) Morula stage 4) Adult stage
8. Darwin’s
Finches of Galapagos islands explain
1) Adaptive radiation 2)
Homoplasy 3)
Parallel evolution 4) Atavism
9. Whale is
closely related to pig than to dolphin. This is proved based on
1) Biochemical recapitulation 2) Blood
precipitation tests
3) Vestigial organs 4)
Connecting links
10. Which of
the following statements is correct
1) The organs which are functional in
the ancestors but non functional and reduced in the descendants are called
Atavistic organs.
2) The organs which appear suddenly in
a better developed condition are called vestigial organs
3) Analogous organs help
unrelated animals, to live in the same habitat.
4) Vestigial organs explain adaptive
radiation
11. The
largest known human gene codes for the protein
1) myoglobin 2)
dystrophin
3) tyrosine kinase 4)
phenylalanine hydraxylase
12. DNA
finger printing is useful in
1) Sequencing nucleotide base pairs in
DNA molecule
2) Positive identification of a
suspect in a crime
3) the identification of blood groups
in humans
4) the identification of expressed
sequence tags
13. Transfer
of DNA strands from agarose gel plate to the
nylon membrane by capillary
action is called
1) Denaturation of DNA 2) Blotting 3) Restriction digestion 4)
Sequencing
14. Which of
the following it the closest relative of man
1) Chimpanzee 2) Baboon 3) Monkey 4)
Dog
15. Match the
following
A)
Serological tests 1)
E.M southern
B)
Recapitulation theory 2)
Jeffrys
C) DNA
finger printing 3)
H.F. Nuttal
D)
Blotting 4)
Ernst Haeckel
1) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3 2) A – 1, B – 4, C
– 3, D – 2
3) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1 3) A – 4, B – 2, C
– 1, D – 3
16. Parallelism
is
1) Adaptive divergence 2)
Adaptive convergence of closely related groups
3) Adaptive convergence of widely
separated species
4) Adaptive divergence of widely
separated species
17. Which of
the following is not a vestigial organ
1) Hind limbs in python 2) Wings of
flightless birds
3) Flippers of whale 4)
Mammary glands in male human beings
18. Presence
of tadpole larva in the development of frog indicates the evolution of
amphibians from
1) annelid like ancestor 2)
Fish like ancestor
3)
Reptile like ancestor 4)
Urodele like ancestor
19. Read the following.
I)
Reptiles
Mammals II) Fishes
Amphibians
Mammals II) FishesAmphibians
III) Reptiles
Birds IV)
Amphibians
Reptiles
Birds IV)
AmphibiansReptiles
In the above A, B, C and D represent
the fossils of transitional forms between different groups. They are respectively
1)
Ornythorhynchus, Lepidosiren, Apteryx, Icthyophis
2)
Cynognathus, Seymouria, Archaeopteryx, Eusthenopteron
3)
Seymouria, Archaeopteryx, Eusthenopteron, Cynognathus
4) Cynognathus, Eusthenopteron, Archaeopteryx
and Seymouria
20. One of the following epoch signifies
civilization of human beings. It is
1)
Holocene 2) Pleistocene 3) Pliocene 4) Miocene
21. Study the following statements about biochemical
recapitulations and identify the correct.
a) Tadpole of frog excretes urea and
recapitulates fish ancestry
b)
Bird embryo excretes ammonia initially then urea and finally uric acid
c)
By excreting uric acid mammalian embryo recapitulates reptilian ancestry
1)
All are correct 2) Only a and b are correct
3) Only b and c are correct 4) Only a and c are correct
22. Assertion (A) : Fossil coprolites of
Jurassic dinosaurs reveal the nature of food and their food habits.
Reason (R) : Coprolites are fossilized faecal
matter.
1)
A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2)
A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3)
A is true, R is false. 4) A is false, R is
true.
23. Indian women bore their earpinnae for
wearing jewellery. This has been in
practice for several centuries. How ever
new born girl children are never with readymade perforations in their pinnae. This disproves ………… of lamark.
1) Use principle 2) Disuse principle
3) Inheritance of acquired characters 4) Influence of environment on the organization
24. The grasshoppers are generally green. Appearance of black coloured grasshoppers in
one stock indicates.
1) Recapitulation 2) Mutation 3) Natural selection 4) Lamarkism
25. Match the following and choose the correct
answer.
List-I List-II
A)
Survival of the fittest I) Weisman
B)
Principles of Geology II) Macrovariations
C)
Sports or Saltations III)
Spencer
D)
Decaudalisation IV)
Charles Lyell
A B C D A B C D
1) III IV II I 2) IV III II I
3)
IV III I II 4) III IV I II
26. Which one is the most severe check not only
on the rate of reproduction but also survival as well.
1) Struggle with the environment 2) Intraspecific struggle
3) Interspecific struggle 4) All the above
27. Read the following statements about
mutation theory.
I)
Mutations result in origin of full fledged forms without any
intermediate stages
II)
New variations arised by mutations are not subjected to natural selection
III) In any population the origin of
new species by mutation is sudden and discontinuous
In the above the correct
1) All are correct 2) I and II only 3) I and III only 4) II and III
only
28. Study the following and choose the correct
combination.
Theory Salient feature Example
A)
Natural selection Survival of
fittest Biston betularia
B)
Germplasm theory Two kinds of
protoplasm Proteus
C)
Lamarkism Use
principle Snakes
1) All 2) Only A 3) Onlyl B 4) Only B and C
29. Changes in the external conditions
Secretions from somatic cell
Secretions reach sex
cells along with blood
Inheritatnce of variations
Offspring with new characters
The above flow chart is related to the
observation made by
1) Weismann 2) Kammarer 3) Spencer 4) Kettlewell
30. This
one tends to “reduce” the amount of genetic variation within the population
mainly by removing alleles which have low frequency.
1. Genetic drift 2.
Sexual recombination
3. Assortative
mating 4.
Centrifugal selection
31. According
to Darwin
1. Reproductive success will be more for
organisms with over specialized organs.
2.
Vestigial organs have selection value.
3.
formation of a new
species is due to the cumulative effect of 'fluctuating variations'
4.
Sports of nature play important role in formation of species.
32. Evolution of new species in a single lineage is called
1. Cladogenesis 2. Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium
3.
Adaptive radiation 4.
Phyletic evolution
33. Study
the following about centripetal selection:
I.
It does not promote evolutionary change that leads to speciation.
II.
It maintains phenotypic stability within the population from generation to
generation.
III.
It operates in a stable environment.
The correct ones are
1.
III only 2. II and
III only 3.I and II only 4. All
34. Both
Darwinism and Lamarckism suggests that
1. Earth is 6000
years old 2.
Species are fixed
3.
Interaction of organisms with surroundings is importantin evolution
4.
Main mechanism of evolution is the inheritance of acquired characters.
35.. Baldness is a sex influenced character. In
a small population of 100 individual in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the allelic
frequency of B is 0.6. What is the total number of bald males and bald females
respectively in that population?
1. 24 : 18 2. 42 : 18 3. 42 : 8 4. 24 : 8
36. Study
the following:
|
Phenomenon
|
Organism
|
Scientist
|
|
A. Industrial
melanism
|
Bistonbetularia
|
Bernard
Kettlewell
|
|
B. Mutation
theory
|
Oenotheralamarckiana
|
Hugo de Vries
|
|
C. Inheritance
of somatic characters
|
Proteus anguinus
|
Kammarer
|
|
D. Acquired
characters are not inherited
|
Mice
|
August
Weismann
|
Correct ones of the above are
1. A, B, C and D 2.
A, B and D only
3.
A, B and C only 4.
A and B only
37. ‘The external conditions affecting the somatic cells stimulate
the body cells to produce specific secretions’ according to
1. Lamarck 2.
Osborn 3.R.A.
Fisher 4. Darwin
38. Geographic
isolation is not required for the occurrence of
1.
Allopatric speciation and founder effect 2.
Allopatric speciation and bottleneck effect
3.
Sympatric speciation and founder effect 4.
Sympatric speciation and bottleneck effect
39. ASSERTION (A): Every acquired
character is not transmitted to the offspring.
REASON
( R): Only those changes that occur in
germplasm are heritable.
1. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is correct explanation to ‘A’.
2. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is
not correct explanation to ‘A’
3. ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false 4. ‘A’ is false but
‘R’ is true
40. If 9% of
African population is born with a severe form of sickle cell anaemia (ss), what
is the frequency of population, who will be more resistant to malaria?
1. 0.32 2.
0.42 3. 0.7 4. 0.3
41. Match the
following and choose the correct one
|
List-I
|
List-II
|
|
A.
Resistance to DDT by mosquitoes
|
1.
Founder effect
|
|
B.
Polydactylic dwarf individuals in old order
Amish
population
|
2.
Genetic load
|
|
C.
Sickle cell anaemia
|
3.
Disruptive selection
|
|
D.
Presence of ‘O’ positive blood group near to
100%
among Red-indians
|
4.
Bottleneck effect
|
|
|
5.
Directional selection
|
1. A-5, B-3, C-2, D-4 2. A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
3. A-3, B-5, C-2, D-4 4.
A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1
42. What is the frequency of heterozygotes in a
Hardy-Weinberg population in which the frequency of dominant phenotype is 0.64?
1.0.48 2.0.16 3.0.32 4. 0.52
43. Find out incorrect statement with reference to
objections to Darwinism
1) It did not
distinguish between somatic and germinal variations
2) It could not explain organs like
large tusks in mammoths and over sized antlers in Irish deer
3) It focused on small, fluctuating
variations which are mostly non heritable
4)
It explains the arrival of the fittest but not the survival of the fittest.
44. Match the following and choose the correct
answer
List
– I List
– II
A)
Bateson I) Saltations
B)
Paul kammarer II)
Sir Charles Lyell
C)
Philosophie zoologique III)
Proteus anguinus
D)
Principles of geology IV)
Discontinous variations
E)
Darwin V)
Lamarck
A B C D E A B C D E
1) I
III II V
IV 2) IV
III II V
I
3) IV
III V II
I 4) I
III V II
IV
45. If one species diverges to become two or more
species due to geographical barriers it is called
1) Cladogenesis and allopatric
speciation 2) Anagenesis and allopatric
speciation
3) Cladogenesis and sympatric
speciation 4) Anagenesis and sympatric
speciation
46. In a population of 5000 individuals with HW
equilibrium, 200 members exhibit a recessive trait. Find out the frequency of
the dominant and recessive alleles in that population
1) 0.96 and 0.04 2) 0.68 and 0.32 3) 0.6 and 0.4 4)
0.8 and 0.2
47. The existence of deleterious genes within the
populations is called
1) Founder
effect 2) Haldane effect 3) Genetic load 4) Bottleneck effect
48. Assertion (A): Stabilizing natural selection
keeps the species unchanged
Reason(R):
Stabilizing selection eliminates individuals from both the ends of phenotypic
distribution and preserves only the average phenotype
1) Both A and R
are true and R is not the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false
but R is true
49. Find out the incorrect statement regarding
mutations
1) They are
random and occur in any direction
2)
They are discontinuous but get accumulated over generations
3) They are subjected to natural
selection
4) They are full-fledged and so there
are no intermediate forms
50. The type of natural selection that leads to the
splitting of a parental population in a species leading to formation of two or
more new species is called
1) Germinal
selection 2)
Centripetal selection
3) Directional selection 4)
Centrifugal selection
51. The following are the statements regarding
industrial melanism
I) This
is an experimental verification of artificial selection
II)
Natural selection of darker moths in response to industrial pollution is called
as industrial melanism
III) Dorset
is more polluted as compared to Birmingham.
IV) Reverse
evolution of gray moths is due to reduction of pollution in the urban areas.
Correct pair of statements is
1) I & II 2) II & IV 3) II & III 4) III & IV
52. The first primate who
used sharp stone tools for hunting was
1. Neanderthals 2. Australopithecus 3. Homo habilis 4. Homo sapiens
53. Who of the following were first to leave
Africa?
1. Homo ergaster 2.
Homo habilis
3. Homo
neanderthalensis 4.
Australopithecus
54. A. Homo
erectus B. Homo sapiens C. Homo neanderhalensis
D. Homo
habilis E. Ramapithecus F. Australopithecus
Arrange the above based on probable
evolutionary sequence
1.
E,F,A,D,C,B 2. F,E,D,A,C,B 3. F,E,A,D,C,B 4. E,F,D,A,C,B
55. The correct one about Dryopithecus is
1.
The first hominid 2.
More ape-like
3. Formed just around
2 million years ago 4. Used stone
tools
56. Correct one regarding number of cones in an eye is
1.
Fovea centralis > macula lutea 2.
Optic disc = macula lutea
3. Blind spot > yellow spot 4. Fovea centralis < Uvea
57. The first human-like being was
1. Homo habilis 2. Australopithecus 3. Homo erectus 4. Homo
ergaster
58. Fossils discovered in Java revealed about
1.
Homo habilis 2. Ramapithecus 3. Cro-magnon man 4. Homo erectus
59. Study the following:
I. Cave paintings were done by cro-magnon
man.
II. Australopithecus
lived in East African grasslands.
III. During ice age modern Homo sapiens were arose in Africa and
moved first to Asia.
The
correct ones are
1. III only 2. II and III only 3. I and II only 4.
All
60. Study the following:
|
Related
to human evolution
|
Cranial capacity
|
Character
|
|
A.
Homo neanderthalensis
|
1400cc
|
Buried
their dead
|
|
B.
Homo habilis
|
650-800cc
|
Ate
fruits
|
|
C.
Homo erectus
|
Around
900cc
|
Probably
ate meat
|
Correct
one of the above are
1.
A, B and C 2. A
and B only 3. A and C only 4. B and C only
61. Which one of the following is related to the
first human – like being .
1) Used hides to protect their body 2) Ate meat
3)
Hunted with sharp stone tools 4)
Buried their dead
62. Choose the correct one related to human –
like being who lived in East and central Asia between 100,000 to 40,000 ya.
1) Buried their dead 2)
First to leave Africa
3) Cranial
capacity of around 900 cc 4)
Hunted first with sharp stone tools
63. Match the following
A)
Ichthyosaurus 1)
Man – like hominid
B)
The first mammals 2)
The biggest dinosaur
C)
Tyrannosaurus rex 3)
Shrew like
D)
Ramapithecus 4)
Fish – like reptile
5)
Ape – like hominid
6)
Man- like hominoid
A B C D A B C D
1) 2 3 4 5 2) 4 3 2 1
3)
4 3 2 5 4)
4 3 2 6
64. Cave paintings about 18,000 ya were done by
1) Cro –
Magnon man 2)
Homo erectus
3) Homo
neanderthalensis 4)
Homo ergaster
65. A lineage composed of two or more groups of
organisms which includes the common ancestral group and all descendants is
called a monophyletic group. The
branching diagram (cladogram) below depicts the relationships of seven
species. Which of the following is not a
monophyletic group?
1) B+C 2) G+H 3)
B+ C+E 4)
B+C+E+F+G+H
66. A population can have genotypes CC, Cc and
cc for coat-colour. Which one of the
following genotype frequencies follow Hardy-Weinberg rule?
1) 0.29, 0.42, 0.20 2)
0.25, 0.50, 0.25
3) 0.36, 0.55, 0.99 4)
0.20, 0.60, 0.20
67. Theory of Panspermia proposes that:
1) Catostrophies create new life
forms from time to time
2) Life and universe were created by
divine power
3) New species are produced from
non-living matter spontaneously
4) Life form reached the earth
from other planets accidentally
68. De Vries theory of mutation:
1) Supports theory of spontaneous
generation or abiogenesis .
2) Does not rule out theory of
natural selection proposed by Charles Robert Darwin
3) Rules out theory of evolution by
natural selection
4) Supports Lamarck’s one of main assumptions
of “inheritance of acquired characters” through the non-random mechanism
69. For a gene with two alleles, if the gene
frequency of the recessive gene is 0.2.
What is the genotypic frequency of homozygous dominant?
1) 0.064 2) 0.8 3)
0.64 4) 0.32
70. The process of formation of a new species
within a population in the same habitat because of some isolation mechanism is
called
1) Allopatric speciation 2)
Parapatric speciation
3) Sympatric speciation 4)
H-W equilibrium
71. Which one of the following is not a
pre-required for Hardy – Weinberg
equilibrium?
1) Large size of population 2) No change in the rate of mutation
3) No large – scale migration between
populations 4) Nonrandom
mating
72. After synthesizing bacterial chlorophyll
from magnesium porphyrin first time the primitive organisms performed this mode
of nutrition:
1) Chemoautrotrophic 2)
Anoxygenic photoautotrophic
3) Anaerobic heterotrophic 4) Oxygenic,
aerobic heterotrophic
73. Earthworm and snake have the same body form
as both live in burrows, it suggests
1) Divergent evolution 2)
Convergent evolution
3) Disruptive evolution 4)
Parallel evolution
74. The primitive organisms that are anaerobic
heterotrophs obtained energy by the:
1) Oxidation of organic and
inorganic substances
2) Fermentation of some of the
organic molecules
3) Fermentation of some of the
inorganic molecules
4)
Reduction of organic and inorganic substances
75. In a Hardy –Weinberg population 288
individuals show homozygous dominant trait. The frequency of dominant allele is
0.6. How many individuals are there in the population?
1.
200 2. 800 3. 600 4. 1800
76. Presence of a fish like tadpole larva in the
life history of frog supports
1) Natural
selection theory of Darwin 2)
Biogenetic Law
3)
Abiogenesis 4)
Theory of Biogenesis
77. According to chemical evolution the primitive
atmosphere was
1) Hot with
abundant oxygen and absence of hydrogen
2) Cold with abundant hydrogen and
absence of free oxygen
3) Cold with abundant free oxygen and
absence of hydrogen
4)
Hot with abundant hydrogen and absence of free oxygen
78. Identify the correct statement related to
biochemical recapitulations 1) Adult frog and its tadpole excrete
urea like fishes
2) The embryo of bird excretes
ammonia for the first nine days of development as fishes do, then urea in the
next four days as amphibians and finally uric acid as reptiles
3)
Mammalian embryo first excretes ammonia then uric acid and finally urea
4)
Adult frog excrete ammonia and its tadpole larva excrete urea
79. Assertion (A): During biological evolution
reducing atmosphere transformed into modern
oxidising
atmosphere after the evolution of oxygenic photo autotrophs.
Reason (R):
Oxygenic photo autotrophic organisms released large quantity of oxygen
into
the
atmosphere.
1) Both A and R are true, R is the
correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true, R is not
the correct explanation of A
3)
A is true, R is false 4)
A is false, R is true
80. In a Hardy – Weirberg population of 6,400
guinea pogs 1600 are with brown coat which is a recessive trait. What is the
genotypic frequency of dominant individuals in that population ?
1)
0.25 2)
0.75 3) 0.95 4) 0.5
81. Assertion (A): Reproductive isolation plays an important
role in preserving the species integrity.
Reason (R): It prevents genetic
exchange.
1)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3)
(A) is true but (R) is false 4)
(A) is false but (R) is true
82. Choose correct set
List – I List
– II
A) Kettle well I) Natural
selection
B) Kammarer II) industrial
melanism
C) Hugo devries III) Proteus anguinus
D) Sewall wright IV) Principles of
geology
E) Charles Lyell V) Neo Darwinism
VI)
Mutations
1)
A –II,B–III,C–VI,D–IV,E–I 2)
A –II,B–III,C–VI,D–V,E–IV
3)
A –IV,B–III,C–II,D–I,E–V 4)
A –II,B–III,C–I,D–V,E–IV
83. Assertion (A): According to Lamarck
adaptations are acquired characters due the influence of environmental changes.
Reason (R): Acquired characters develop due to hereditary
changes in somatoplasm
1)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)
(A) is true but (R) is false 4)
(A) is false but (R) is true
84. Darwin’s theory could not explain
1) survival of the fittest 2)
occurence of vestigeal organs.
3)
role of fluctuating variations in speciation
4)
role of reproductive success in struggle for existence.
85. Assume that 100% of the Red Indians are with
‘O’ blood group. If few people with homozygous ‘A’ blood group migrate into
that population and if random genetic exchange occurs, the consequence would be
1)
loss of q 2) fixation of
P 3) q value decreases 4) either p or q are lost
86. According to Hugo Devries there are no
‘intermediate forms’ in evolution due to this reason.
1)
mutations are fullfledged 2)
mutations are selected by nature
3)
mutations accumulate over generations 4)
mutations are random changes.
87. The type of selection which leads to
divergent evolution
1)
centripetal selection 2) directional
selection 3) anagenesis 4) centrifugal.
88.
Match the
following and choose the correct answer
A)Abiogenesis I)Cuvier
B)Catastrophism II)Louis Pasteur
C)Biogenesis III)Linnaeus
D)Coacervate
theory IV)Von Helmont
V)Oparin
A B C D A B C D
1) III II I V 2) II III V IV
3) IV I II V 4) IV I II III
89. Assertion(A): Lamarckism is considered as the first
scientifically explained theory of evolution
Reason(R ):
Lamarck was the first person to give importance to the effect of environmental
factors on organisms
1)A & R are
true R explains A 2)A&R
are true R does not explain A
3)A
is true but R is false 4)A
is false but R is true
90. In a Hardy-Weinberg population of 1000 individuals
in a forest the frequency of recessive allele is 0.6. If all the homozygous
recessive individuals died in a forest fire, the expected frequency of
homozygous recessive individuals in the next generation will be
1)0.140 2)0.35 3)0.40 4)0.60
91. A group of individuals with homologous characters
exhibit
1)Divergent
evolution 2)Convergent evolution
3)Homoplasy 4)Parallelism
92. Assertion (A): Natural selection can not cause the formation of
new species.
Reason
(R): It does not produce any genetic changes.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A.
3) A is true, R is false. 4)
A is false, R is true.
93. Who proposed the idea of
“ survival of fittest”?
1) The scientist, who stated that the
characters acquired may be inherited by progeny
2) The scientist, who coined
the term “ organic evolution”
3) The scientist, who wrote the book
“ origin of species” by natural selection
4) The scientist, who supported the
natural selection through experiment called “industrial melanism”
94. Which natural selection favours the intermediate phenotype over
the extremes?
1) Centripetal selection 2) Directional
selection
3) Artificial selection 4)
Centrifugal selection
95. Which one of the following is not a pre-required for Hardy –
Weinberg equilibrium?
1) Large size of population 2) Absence of
mutations
3) No large – scale migration between
population
4)
Nonrandom mating
96. Identify
the wrong match with respect to simulation experiment
1. Primordial atmosphere – gases in spark
chamber
2. Lightening energy – electrodes
3. Rain and Haldene’s soup – Condenser
tube
4. Lightening energy – boiling
flask
97. Identify
the correct statements
I.
Mammals were originated earlier to birds
II.
Amphibians originated in the golden age of fishes
III.
Dinosaurs had become extinct before origin of birds
IV. Man
was civilized in Pleistocene epoch
1.I & II 2. I, II, III 3. III, IV 4. II, III
98. Assertion
(A): Early embryos of fish, salamander, tortoise, chick and man resemble each
other closely
Reason(R):
Tadpole larva of frog resembles fish
1) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are
correct. R is not the correct
explanation of A.
3) A is true, but R is false 4) A is false, but R is true
99. Identify
the wrongly matched pair
1.
Tailed human baby - Atavism 2. Darwins finches –
adaptive radiation
3. Body form of shark and whale-divergent
evolution
4.
Ammonia excretion by tadpole – biochemical recapitulation
100.
The following products are excreted by
an animal during its embryonic development. At first ammonia, later urea and
finally uric acid. Identify the animal
1.Fish 2.
Frog 3. Mammal 4. Bird
101. Theory
of biogenesis was confirmed by
1.
A.I Oparin 2. George
Cuvier 3. Louis Pasteur 4. JBS Haldane
102. Identify the correct statement related to biological evolution
1. Heterotrophs were evolved
earlier to autotrophs
2. Chemoautotrophs were evolved after
the evolution of photoautotrophs
3. True
chlorophyll was evolved earlier to bacterial chlorophyll
4.
Oxygenic photoautotrophs were evolved earlier to anoxygenic photoautotrophs
103. Assertion (A) The flipper of a whale, the fore
limb of horse and the paw of a cat are similar in their organization but differ
in function.
Reason (R) : Homologous organs might
be formed in mammals by divergent evolution.
1)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not
the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false 4) A is false and
R is true
104. One of the following is criticism against
Darwinism
1) Survival of the fittest 2)
Macro variations are ‘sports of nature’
3)
Prodigality of production 4)
Moderate development of body organs
105. In a Hardy-Weinberg population of 2000 rabbits
(where the given character in determined by two alleles) the recessive allele
frequency is 0.3. How many are heterozygous individuals in that population ?
1)
980 2) 840 3) 180 4) 420
106. Biogenetic law was proposed by
1) scientist who coined ‘survival of
fittest’ 2)
father of modern embryology
3) father of embryology 4) scientist who
wrote ‘origin of species’
107. Read the following statements regarding the
theories of evolution and pick out the correct option.
I)
According to Lamarck, the characters developed during the life time of
an organism are
called acquired characters and they are passed on to the next
generation.
II) Darwin considered that formation
of a new species is due to the cumulative effect of
‘fluctuating variations’.
III) de Vries explained that the
mutations are discontinuous and are accumulated over
generations.
IV) When the animals (of a species) of
a certain habitat enter into different habitats, they evolve into different
forms. This indicates divergent
evolution.
1)
All are true 2)
Except II all are true
3)
Except IV all are true 4)
Except III all are true
108. According to modern synthetic theory of
evolution, which of the following is not a basic factor involved in the process
of organic evolution ?
1)
Reproductive isolation 2)
Gene mutations
3)
Atavistic organs 4)
Natural selection
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